These days I often went head to this question: "But the law is equal for all or some are more equal than others?" They taught me that the third article of our constitution says
" All citizens have equal social dignity and are equal before the law, without distinction of sex, race, language, religion, political opinion, conditions personal and social. (...) "
If it were really so why should those who pay are always the same? If a regular job, and because the contracts we have today (I would dare to suck say) must be changed four jobs a year when doing your tax return can be seen several hundred € appioppare of fees that have not been paid because of different rates. Honestly I did not understand anything about this, I am a computer and not an economist. I wonder how it is possible that working in order, declaring all, in the end we are told that we have not paid all taxes, not we who pay them! Now imagine a company (maybe concession of a monopoly) does not pay taxes for nearly one hundred billion euro (including unpaid taxes, fines and other), I think this will pay as well as the poor wretch from work 4 a year?
Because I have to go to give an account before the courts and some people are untouchable, in the sense that it can stand trial?
I know that we are not so equal before the law ...
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